2/28/2015 11:39:08 PM
If a player, when playing eightball, strikes the cue ball and pockets his own assigned ball and one of the opponent's assigned balls, is it considered a foul shot? And does the opponent get a ball-in-hand?
This question relates to the following billiard rules:
Replies & Comments
- Zeke on 3/1/2015 8:11:21 AM
Anything (other than inadvertently making the 8-ball) that happens AFTER a legal shot is made is not loss of turn. However, the called shot must be "clean" without caroming off of an opponent's ball BEFORE making contact with the called ball.
What happens AFTER the called ball is called and struck - is not a foul or scratch. It has no bearing on anything except the opponent has one less ball to sink when it becomes his turn.
- Title: Ball-in-hand situation?
- Author: guest
- Published: 2/28/2015 11:39:08 PM